Maritime Questions › Vetting — OVID Process
The framework notes that "lack of alignment between conclusions of the FMEA and FMEA proving trials" is a common failing, and separately states "only benign failure modes are considered" is another common gap. How do these two failings compound each other in a worst-case scenario?
A. If proving trials only test benign failure modes (failures to an inert/passive state) while the FMEA's conclusions assume coverage of both benign and aggressive failure modes (failures to an active state, like a thruster driving full-power in the wrong direction), the trials programme can appear to "confirm" the FMEA's conclusions while never actually testing the more dangerous aggressive failure scenarios the FMEA was supposed to validate — giving false confidence precisely where the real risk is highest
B. Proving trials that only test benign failure modes automatically fail OVID assurance regardless of any other factor
C. This compounding effect only applies to vessels operating with hybrid power systems, not conventional diesel-electric plants
D. Benign and aggressive failure modes are functionally identical in terms of consequence, making this distinction irrelevant to trial planning
Sign in or create a free account to see the answer and explanation.
A. Inspectors are not permitted to access or reference the OVPQ at any point during an inspection
B. The OVPQ and OVIQ contain identical information, making the separation purely a naming convention
C. Particulars like dimensions, tonnage, and crane capacity do not change between inspections, so having the operator maintain this as a standing record (which the inspector can verify rather than re-derive from scratch) lets the inspection itself focus its limited time on what actually needs fresh, on-the-spot assessment — current condition, crew competency, operational practice — rather than re-collecting static facts every visit
D. The OVPQ is purely a marketing document with no functional role in the inspection process
Sign in or create a free account to see the answer and explanation.
A. The requirement to justify "Not Seen" responses exists purely as an administrative formality with no bearing on report reliability
B. Inspectors are required to mark every question "No" if they cannot personally witness the relevant operation during the inspection
C. "No" represents a confirmed negative finding (the item was checked and found deficient), while "Not Seen" represents an inability to verify (e.g. access was restricted, or the relevant operation was not occurring during the inspection window) — collapsing these into one category would make every inspection report ambiguous about whether something was actually wrong or simply not observed, and the required reason for "Not Seen" forces the inspector to document why verification was not possible rather than silently treating absence of evidence as evidence of failure
D. "Not Seen" and "No" are functionally identical categories with no meaningful distinction in OVID reporting
Sign in or create a free account to see the answer and explanation.
+3 more Vetting — OVID Process questions available
Create a free account to practise all 6 questions, track your accuracy, and build your Reputation Score.
Create Free Account